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Topics:
General Internal Medicine
•
Rheumatology
•
Vasculitis
How do you approach management of a young adult after ascending thoracic aneurysm repair with biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation (no other vascular involvement, PET scan normal)?
Rheumatological and infectious work up unrevealing.
Related Questions
How do you interpret a negative ANCA and a low positive PR3?
Would you start anticoagulation in a previously heathy patient with a new diagnosis of ANCA vasculitis (+PR3, RPGN, crescents on kidney biopsy) who presented with pancreatitis, splenic and renal infarcts and was also found to have CMV viremia?
What features on CTA/MRA are most helpful for differentiating large vessel vasculitis from atherosclerosis?
When advising patients on starting Avacopan for Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, what side effects do you tell patients are commonly seen in clinical practice?
Would you consider tocilizumab for treatment of GCA in patients with underlying CLL (not requiring therapy)?
Would you stop azathioprine in a patient with ANCA vasculitis who has been in long term remission on azathioprine, but has a new diagnosis of lung cancer requiring initiation of immunotherapy?
Do you utilize temporal artery ultrasound in your practice?
How would you approach a patient with EGPA, with main manifestations of asthma, nasal polyposis, and mononeuritis multiplex, who has clinically responded to rituximab, yet has persistently high eosinophilia (>40%)?
How soon after starting treatment for Takayasu arteritis do you decide on the need for any vascular interventions to manage chronic damage?
Do you consider immunosuppression in a patient with cocaine-induced midline lesions who is ANCA positive, but has no other evidence of vasculitis?