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Topics:
Internal Medicine
•
Rheumatology
•
Vasculitis
How do you approach management of a young adult after ascending thoracic aneurysm repair with biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation (no other vascular involvement, PET scan normal)?
Rheumatological and infectious work up unrevealing.
Related Questions
How long do you continue PJP prophylaxis in a patient with GPA who is able to wean steroids and remains only on rituximab for maintenance therapy?
Do you utilize temporal artery ultrasound in your practice?
How would you interpret the presence of both high titer anti-PR3 and anti-MPO antibodies in a pANCA positive patient with evidence of small vessel vasculitis?
Would you consider tocilizumab for treatment of GCA in patients with underlying CLL (not requiring therapy)?
How would you interpret a temporal artery biopsy demonstrating focal chronic inflammation in the adventitia associated with small adventitial vessels and nerves without inflammation of the intima and media and without giant cells?
How would you manage a patient with severe Hurley Stage 3 active, draining, HS who is also currently requiring Rituxan for management of vasculitis?
Are you aware of drug induced-ANCA vasculitis associated with new wt loss medications (ex tirzepatide or semaglutide?
How would you approach evaluation of a patient with multiple vertebral artery pseudoaneurysms and history of dissection, but without other areas of pseudoaneurysms?
What is your experience of using rituximab for GPA with renal involvement following a recent myocardial infarction?
Do you avoid tocilizumab in patients with prior bariatric surgery given the risk of GI perforation?