If a patient had biopsy proven gleason 6 disease 3-5 years ago and has had a slowly rising PSA to between 15-20 over the past year or 2, would you require repeat biopsy to appropriately risk categorize the patient prior to initiating treatment? If not would you empirically recommend concurrent ADT and for how long?
I agree with all @Daniel E. Spratt has to say...
Can you clarify when you think PSA can be an appro...
I too am curious to @Howard M. Sandler's comment o...
@Daniel E. Spratt, If a rising PSA triggers multip...
There's also this paper: "Prostate-Specific Antige...