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Topics:
Infectious Disease
•
General Infectious Disease
What is your approach to managing antimicrobial therapy for intra-abdominal infections to avoid unnecessary double anaerobic coverage, in light of associated risks and guidelines?
Related Questions
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Under what circumstance would you order dalbavancin instead of vancomycin or daptomycin for MRSA endocarditis?
How long do you typically treat mixed infections involving Actinomyces such as empyema or abdominal abscesses when adequate source control has been achieved?
How do you approach patients who continue to experience pruritus and ongoing concern for persistent scabies despite having completed appropriate treatment?
Would you give long term antistreptococcal antibiotic prophylaxis to a patient who presents with features of poststreptococcal reactive arthritis but who also meets criteria for Acute Rheumatic Fever?
Under what circumstances would you treat a patient with an aortic graft infection for greater than 6 weeks of antibiotic therapy, whom has undergone total graft explanation and replacement?
How does trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole's efficacy against S. pyogenes influence your empirical treatment of skin infections in regions with high resistance rates?
How do you typically manage a patient with a single positive blood culture from two sets growing Candida species in a stable patient without prosthetic devices or material?
Do you repeat post-splenectomy vaccines if they were administered on postoperative day 1 of emergency splenectomy or do you count those doses as valid?
Would you consider leaving fever untreated in patients with sepsis to potentially enhance immune responses and antimicrobial efficacy?
