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Topics:
Internal Medicine
•
Infectious Disease
•
General Infectious Disease
What is your approach to managing antimicrobial therapy for intra-abdominal infections to avoid unnecessary double anaerobic coverage, in light of associated risks and guidelines?
Related Questions
For which patients could you consider direct oral amoxicillin challenge as opposed to skin testing for penicillin allergy de-labeling?
Do you routinely consider FDG PET/CT imaging for workup of fever of unknown origin?
What is your approach to the use of Paxlovid for patients with risk factors for severe Covid-19 infection but who have received SARS-CoV-2 vaccines in light of the EPIC-SR trial findings?
Which biomarkers or diagnostic tools do you prioritize to support the decision to start antifungal treatment in septic patients with no clear source of infection but at high risk for fungal infections?
Have you incorporated the use of linezolid in lieu of vancomycin plus clindamycin for empiric treatment of necrotizing fasciitis?
What are your top takeaways from ID Week 2024?
Under what circumstances do you consider valacyclovir for the management of VZV disease of the CNS?
Do you use metronidazole twice daily dosing for routine anaerobic coverage such as non-CNS, H. pylori, C. diff, or parasitic infections?
Do you consider the use of tocilizumab in patients with COVID pneumonia who have had an improvement in supplemental O2 requirements but have significantly elevated inflammatory markers after day two of remdesivir and dexamethasone?
Do you routinely perform echocardiography in patients with Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia deemed low risk for metastatic infection, or do you selectively omit it based on specific clinical criteria?