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Topics:
General Internal Medicine
•
Infectious Disease
•
General Infectious Disease
Do you routinely recommend transition to dual PO antibiotic coverage for strep species and MRSA, for patients with purulent cellulitis and in the absence of culture data?
Related Questions
Is there any utility to trending Histoplasma serology titers to guide duration of therapy or treatment response for pulmonary histoplasmosis with negative urine antigen?
Do you routinely perform echocardiography in patients with Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia deemed low risk for metastatic infection, or do you selectively omit it based on specific clinical criteria?
Do you ever favor cefazolin over ceftriaxone for bacteremia with susceptible E. coli?
How would you approach treatment duration for patients with persistent candida species fungemia with a history of a prosthetic heart valve but negative TEE/CT PET and no other identifiable source of infection?
Do you routinely transition from inpatient vancomycin to outpatient daptomycin to decrease the risk of nephrotoxicity and reduce the burden of lab monitoring in a patient with MRSA infection being discharged on home IV antibiotics?
Do you routinely recommend a lumbar puncture for patients with suspected ocular or otic syphilis in the absence of additional CNS symptoms?
Under what circumstances do you consider valacyclovir for the management of VZV disease of the CNS?
Would you still consider adding clindamycin for streptococcal toxic shock syndrome in situations where the isolate is considered to be resistant?
What infectious differentials should be considered for a patient with intractable erythema nodosum that is non-responsive to acyclovir and steroids?
How would you manage and determine the duration of antibiotics for a patient with suspected chronic postoperative spinal implant infection, status post lumbar fusion, now presenting with loosened hardware on imaging, normal inflammatory markers, and no systemic infection symptoms?
