Do you consider late latent syphilis adequately treated if a patient receives a 10-14 day course of IV ceftriaxone for another indication?

This is a great question and not uncommon scenario. First, I would emphasize the importance of accurately staging the patient as 'late latent' and be sure there are no current signs or symptoms concerning for neurosyphilis, ocular, or otic (even before the IV CTX was given). Having said that, the bo...